My husband has been having sex hookups with many men over the past 5 years that i know of. He mostly would engage in oral with annonomous men but had on ongoing relationship witha guy for 4 years. He said he only engaged in anal sex with this man because he felt he was "safe". The man is gay and used protection the first few times with my h but my h told him he did not "need that" and he wanted it as they call it "bareback". I am just wondering if he says he is "straight" and there was prior "csa" involved why would he consciouly not use protection? I feel that he could have met another married guy (in the same situation) and payed for hotel rooms(once a week like he did) and the safety factor may have been mentally better. I still am confused why someone would jeprodize there life(even when offered protection) and there family.